1(1). In the event of a deviation from a flight rule and/or when given traffic priority by ATC in an emergency, the PIC will verbally report the incident to a supervisor and commander within ______ of the incident, and shall make a detailed written record.
Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Chap: 1 Para: 1.6.2

2(2). Crews may complete initial alert activities (e.g., briefing, preflight, cocking, engine run of their alert aircraft) without starting their FDP. This time should not exceed ___ hour(s).
Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Chap: 2 Para: 2.5.1.5

3(3). Tactical mission events at or above ____ feet AGL and one tactical approach to a full-stop landing may be accomplished up to ___ hours.
Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Chap: 2 Para: 2.2.1.5.1

4(4). If the autopilot is not operational or its use is denied for more than __ hours, the FDP will be ___ hours (non-augmented crew).
Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Chap: 2 Para: 2.2.1.5.5

5(5). An MSA will be computed for each leg of the route by adding ___ feet to the highest obstruction to flight within _ nm of route centerline to include the aircraft turn radius.
Ref: AFMAN 11-217, Vol 2, Instrument Flight Procedures Chap: 3 Para: 3.2.4.4

6(6). Compute ESA by adding _____ to the elevation of the highest obstruction to flight within __ nm either side of the entire planned route. The ESA(s) will be computed for the route and conspicuously annotated on the chart.
Ref: AFMAN 11-217, Vol 2, Instrument Flight Procedures Chap: 3 Para: 3.2.4.4

7(7). Boom. The position approximately _____ ft behind and slightly _______ the tanker boom nozzle where the receiver stabilizes with zero rate of closure before being cleared to the contact position.
Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 1A-4 Chap: 1A

8(8). Receivers will maintain altitude separation of at least ______ ft until 1 nm from the tanker.
Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 1-2 Chap: Part 2 Para: 102 d

9(9). Rendezvous Overrun. The receiver will ensure positive vertical separation such that they pass at least ______ ft below the tanker and call "(Tanker Callsign) Execute Overrun."
Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 1-3 Chap: 2 Para: 104 a

10(10). AAR Loss of Visual Contact. Upon losing sight of the tanker, or if unable to maintain formation due to spatial disorientation (SD), a receiver(s) in contact or astern or following a breakaway will simultaneously:
Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 4-18 Chap: 4 Para: 409

11(11). The receiver aircraft commander is to ensure that weapons are safe prior to commencing an RV with a tanker.
Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 4-21 Chap: 4 Para: 415

12(12). In EMCON 2, standard for day to day AAR, an abbreviated astern radio check is required when the receiver reaches the astern position.
Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 5A-1 Chap: 5A Para: Fig 5A-1

13(13). Boom/Receiver AAR Signal. Flashing pilot director lights and tanker lower rotating beacon on indicates:
Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 5C-3 Chap: 5C Para: Fig 5C-3

14(14). Boom/Receiver AAR Signal. Boom zero degrees elevation, extended 5 ft indicates:
Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 5C-3 Chap: 5C Para: Fig 5C-3

15(15). A(n) __________ rendezvous will be normally used for all C-130 operations.
Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: ZE-5-21 Chap: ZE Para: 8ZE-5 b. (1) (a)

16(16). The receiver(s) will plan to arrive at the ARIP/RV ______________.
Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: ZE-5-22 Chap: ZE Para: 8ZE-5 b. (1) (d)

17(17). The tanker and receiver should communicate as soon as possible (in no case later than ____ minutes prior to the rendezvous control time) to update ETAs.
Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: ZE-5-22 Chap: ZE Para: 8ZE-5 b. (1) (h)

18(18). CAS aircraft are not required to be tally / contact / capture the target when conducting _____ attacks.
Ref: AFTTP(I) 3-2.6, JFIRE Pg: 43 Para: 1 (6)

19(19). 9-Line. What items must be read back to JTACs for 9-Line Briefings?
Ref: AFTTP(I) 3-2.6, JFIRE Pg: 51

20(20). 9-Line. Aircrew derived coordinates: When the attacking aircrew is the first to derive target data, they should pass those coordinates to the JTAC prior to the CAS brief. The JTAC will then verify the data and include it as lines 4, 5, and 6 of the 9-Line. The aircrew who provided the data will conduct readbacks by __________.
Ref: AFTTP(I) 3-2.6, JFIRE Pg: 52 Para: (7) (a)

21(21). 9-Line. Once an attack has been authorized, only the JTAC authorizing the attack may make an ABORT call to prevent ordnance release.
Ref: AFTTP(I) 3-2.6, JFIRE Pg: 53

22(22). 9-Line. Under Type __ control, attack platforms will provide "Commencing Engagement and Engagement Complete" calls.
Ref: AFTTP(I) 3-2.6, JFIRE Pg: 53

23(23). 9-Line. The clearance "CLEARED HOT" means you are cleared to release ordnance on multiple passes.
Ref: AFTTP(I) 3-2.6, JFIRE Pg: 53

24(24). 9-Line. The attacking aircrew shall repeat "Cleared Hot" or "Cleared to Engage" back to the JTAC to verify receipt of clearance.
Ref: AFTTP(I) 3-2.6, JFIRE Pg: 53

25(25). 5-Line. Transmission of the brief is clearance to fire for an AC-130 5-Line Attack. Danger Close clearance with commanders initials must be stated on Line 5 for Danger Close fire.
Ref: AFTTP(I) 3-2.6, JFIRE Pg: 61

26(26). 5-Line. When "At My Command" is included in the remarks of a 5-line, the gunship will call ___________ when ready.
Ref: AFTTP(I) 3-2.6, JFIRE Pg: 61

27(27). Which fixed-wing/AC-130 integration tactic is easiest to execute, requires less airspace and allows constant fires from CAS aircraft and AC-130?
Ref: AFTTP(I) 3-2.6, JFIRE Pg: 63

28(28). In a Wheel fixed-wing/AC-130 integration tactic, if the CAS aircraft calls "ALTITUDE," the AC-130 should call ____ and cease firing until the CAS aircraft calls _____.
Ref: AFTTP(I) 3-2.6, JFIRE Pg: 64

29(29). The brevity term(s) associated with FRIENDLY aircraft / ground position are:
Ref: AFTTP(I) 3-2.6, JFIRE Pg: 99

30(30). The brevity term(s) associated with ENEMY aircraft / ground position are:
Ref: AFTTP(I) 3-2.6, JFIRE Pg: 99

31(31). The brevity term opposite of CONTACT is ___________.
Ref: AFTTP(I) 3-2.6, JFIRE Pg: 99

32(32). The brevity term opposite of HANDSHAKE is ___________.
Ref: AFTTP(I) 3-2.6, JFIRE Pg: 101

33(33). The brevity term DEADEYE means ____________.
Ref: AFTTP(I) 3-2.6, JFIRE Pg: 100

34(34). Danger close distance for AGM-176 Contact is ____ meters.
Ref: AFTTP(I) 3-2.6, JFIRE Pg: 149

35(35). Danger close distance for AGM-176 Airburst is ____meters.
Ref: AFTTP(I) 3-2.6, JFIRE Pg: 149

36(36). Danger close distance for GBU-39 Contact is ____ meters.
Ref: AFTTP(I) 3-2.6, JFIRE Pg: 149

37(37). Danger close distance for GBU-39 Airburst is ____meters.
Ref: AFTTP(I) 3-2.6, JFIRE Pg: 149

38(38). Danger close distance for the AC-130 30mm is ____ meters.
Ref: AFTTP(I) 3-2.6, JFIRE Pg: 150

39(39). The Minimum Safe Distance for Ground Parties with the AC-130 30mm is ____ meters.
Ref: AFTTP(I) 3-2.6, JFIRE Pg: 157

40(40). Marking friendlies is the least desirable method of enabling a tally on the target. Marking friendlies can be confusing and should be used cautiously and only when no other method is available
Ref: Pg: V-16 Para: 7

41(41). ______________________________ prior to departing any live fire range for another.
Ref: HFI11-201 Pg: 47 Para: 4.10.2.6

42(42). When a ground party is on Range A-77 they will be ___________________during the gunship's initial tweak. No-fire headings will be used when required.
Ref: HFI11-201 Pg: 47 Para: 4.10.3

43(43). Simultaneous use of Field 6 or A-77 with B-7 requires:
Ref: HFI11-201 Pg: 53 Para: 4.10.6

44(44). There are no restrictions for simultaneous use of B-7 and A-78
Ref: HFI11-201 Pg: 53 Para: 4.10.6

45(45). For simultaneous use of Ranges A-77 and A-78, the following criteria must be met in order to ensure safety;
Ref: HFI11-201 Pg: 55 Para: 4.10.8.3

46(46). Home Station Air Refueling Procedures: Normally, refueling altitude will be limited to __________ or below.
Ref: HFI11-201 Pg: 63 Para: 5.7.1.1

47(47). Random shallow approaches will enter Hurlburt's class D airspace at or above _____' MSL, and random shallow abeam approaches shall cross the runway _____ of the tower. Once inside the Class D airspace, except for straight-in approaches, aircraft shall not descend below _____' AGL
Ref: HURLBURTFIELDI13-201 Pg: 29 Para: 3.13.2

48(48). The ______ has final mission authority and will make decisions not specifically assigned to a higher authority.
Ref: AC-130J V3 ISG Pg: 8 Para: 2.8.4

49(49). The ______ has final authority for accepting a waiver affecting the crew or mission
Ref: AC-130J V3 ISG Pg: 8 Para: 2.8.4

50(50). The final decision to delay a mission may be made either by the agency with OPCON or the PIC when, in the opinion of either, conditions are not safe to start or continue a mission. Final responsibility for the safe conduct of the mission rests with the PIC.
Ref: AC-130J V3 ISG Para: 2.11

51(51). A _______ fire extinguisher will be positioned near the aircraft for loading/downloading of any ordnance. Aircraft chocks and ground wire ______ be installed prior to the start of any ordnance loading/downloading operations.
Ref: AC-130J V3 ISG Para: 13.3.6

52(52). Employment Decisions. The ______ is the decision authority on tactics and employment. They are responsible for risk assessment and mission execution.
Ref: AC-130J V3 ISG Para: 17.1.1

53(53). During en route/CAS operations, GCAS will set to _______.
Ref: AC-130J V3 ISG Para: 17.3.2

54(54). Immediately place misfired 30mm rounds in an empty ammunition storage container with foam inside and secure with lid
Ref: AC-130J V3 ISG Para: 17.5.1.1

55(55). For fire, all non-essential personnel will withdraw to ______ ft. Crew members fighting the fire will withdraw to _______ ft when fire envelops munitions, or after arrival of firefighters, whichever occurs first. If the NEW exceeds 500 lbs and any Class 1.1 munitions are on board, non-essential personnel must withdraw to _____ ft.
Ref: AC-130J V3 ISG Para: 17.5.4.4

56(56). For fire, with only division 1.3 munitions (markers, flares, and 105mm clearing rounds) on board, non- essential personnel must withdraw to ______ ft.
Ref: AC-130J V3 ISG Para: 17.5.4.5

57(57). Maintain a minimum of ______ ft altitude separation from the highest known trajectory during combined live-fire operations with ground artillery, mortar, or helicopter fire.
Ref: AC-130J V3 ISG Para: 17.11.1

58(58). Face-to-face briefings are required when performing live fire training with qualified ground parties on local ranges.
Ref: AC-130J V3 ISG Para: 17.11.3.3

59(59). Any crew member recognizing an incorrect confirmation (friendly or target) or incorrect ___________will immediately advise the crew.
Ref: AC-130J V3 ISG Para: 17.12.3

60(60). PGM engagements are normally initiated by ____________depending on situation, munitions type, targeting method (coordinates vs laser guidance) and current TTPs.
Ref: AC-130J V3 ISG Para: 17.12.1

61(61). For 30mm Engagement, Weather must be sufficient for the CSO/SO to observe______________.
Ref: AC-130J V3 ISG Para: 17.13.1

62(62). A 30mm engagement will normally be initiated by ____________.
Ref: AC-130J V3 ISG Para: 17.13.2

63(63). If a crew member observes a situation requiring a pause in 30mm engagement, they will call ________over the primary interphone NET.
Ref: AC-130J V3 ISG Para: 17.16.2

64(64). All IPRAs must be conducted in VMC unless HQ AFSOC/A3 approves IMC operations. If approved, IPRA SCA minimums will be no lower than ______________.
Ref: AC-130J V3 ISG Para: 17.19.1

65(65). CAUTION: With any flap extension, the maximum maneuver load factor is _______G in symmetrical and _________G in unsymmetrical maneuvers.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(A)J-1 Pg: 1-10 Para: Caution

66(66). During AIR REFUELING LINE RUPTURE procedures the pilot will ensure that the copilot has__________ the ____________ prior to placing the aircraft in a nose-up attitude and prior to clearing the LM/AG to open the cargo ramp.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(A)J-1 Pg: 3-44 Para: Warning

67(67). An inadvertent brute force disconnect is defined as ny unplanned disconnect which is the result of a boom pullout that occurs below_______ degrees.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(A)J-1 Pg: 3-43 Chap: 3

68(68). If the GWS laptop temperature indicator is not operative, "Hot Barrel" conditions exist after ____________.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(A)J-1 Pg: 3-125 Chap: 3

69(69). During PGM Emergency and Malfunction Procedures the "Hung Store" checklist should be executed without delay.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(A)J-1 Pg: 3-130 Chap: 3

70(70). Jettison of a CLT hung store with a squibbed battery is not recommended
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(A)J-1 Pg: 3-130 Chap: 3

71(71). If a munition's battery has already been squibbed and the intention is to eject a munition without targeting data, the battery should be allowed __________ before jettison is attempted.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(A)J-1 Pg: 3-130 Chap: 3

72(72). When accomplishing the PGM Jettison checklist ensure the SAASM keys are retained in the munitions and reload keys if required prior to jettison.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(A)J-1 Pg: 3-131 Chap: 3

73(73). During Preparation For Emergency Repositioning/Jettison of MOP the oxygen supply line must be ________ prior to disconnecting the hose. Avoid cutting oxygen supply line with _______ contact to prevent possible___________.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(A)J-1 Pg: 3-124 Chap: 3

74(74). Do not operate with the autopilot engaged __________ for non-approach operations.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(A)J-1 Pg: 1-13 Chap: 1

75(75). DIGITAL MAP STABILIZATION. Is used to select the digital map stabilization and slew mode. Pressing the digital map stabilization select switch to the left selects ________ stabilization and cursor slewing, pressing down selects _________ stabilization and cursor slewing, and pressing right selects ________ stabilization and map slewing.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(A)J-1 Pg: 18B-19 Chap: 18B

76(76). It is imperative to follow resolution advisories (RA) to obtain the airplane separation computed by TCAS. Two TCAS equipped airplanes ___________ their resolution advisories using a mode S transponder data link.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(A)J-1 Pg: 18B-29 Chap: 18B Para: Warning

77(77). TAWS TACTICAL mode at latitudes greater than 60° N latitude or less than 56° S latitude should not be used.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(A)J-1 Pg: 1-17 Chap: 1

78(78). In TAWS TACTICAL mode over terrain below sea level, the TAWS will display a solid surface at _____ and all attitude alerting will be _________.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(A)J-1 Pg: 1-18 Chap: 1